Method of Philological Study of the English Language

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Do we now say replication or reverberation ? Is reverberation in Shakespeare ? (No.) Milton? (No. Cndworth has ^^replications [or echoes]," Chaucer has reioerberaciaim, so Bacon, Shakespeare has re»er5 and reverberat^. Why say her banks, her shores ? What rhetorical figure ? 463. Was Tiber feminine in Latin? Are names of rivers usually so in Latin and Greek?
Why does Shakespeare make it so ? Is the trembling better suited to a woman ? Would you not like to know, before you accept that ex- plana
...tion, whether he uses the same gender in other places ? He does — why? Of what gender is his in Anglo-Saxon? 229. — in the Bible?
Exod., xxxvii., 17; 1 Kings, vii., 23; Matt., v., 13; xxvi., 52. — in Shakespeare? Had its become fully established in the time of Mil- ton? (No. He uses it perhaps only twice in Paradise Lost — i., 264 ; iv., 813. Trench says not at all — English, Past and Present, p. 120.) Did his of itself denote personification in Shakespeare's time ? Is this a reason for frequency of feminine personification down to Milton?


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